4 Comments on “MMT Banking Primer”

  1. The problem the USA has is that the Treasury cannot insist that the TGA is credited one-to-one for any of the items mentioned. I’ve seen nothing that prevents the Fed issuing, say, 83 cents on the dollar for anything Treasury issues. That’s then just the same as selling a Treasury bond at a discount or with an interest rate and means that Treasury liabilities float with respect to Federal Reserve liabilities. In other words they become essentially different currencies floating against each other (Yellow and Green). The Fed can also offer 0 cents on the dollar and refuse to accept any of these Treasury securities.

    Coins can be discounted to their face value (because a credit from the TGA is what makes a coin or note worth its face value to a bank). TT&Ls can only be credited by debiting the TGA. Tax anticipation bills are just what we call Treasury Bills in the UK and are just short term Treasury bonds sold in the market at a discount.

    The mechanism in the USA is to obtain reserves, move them into the TGA as public deposits and then spend them back into the system. In the past by obtaining too many reserves the Treasury could nudge the Fed into doing OMO to maintain its interest rate and keep the payment system working. Once you have excess reserves in the system via QE then, in the USA, Treasury is just raising money by selling securities at a discount in the market – pretty much as mainstream suggests.

    That differs from the 1866 Act mechanism we have here in the UK where HM Treasury can order the Bank of England to make issues from the Exchequer Account at the Bank of England regardless of the balance in that account. In the UK HM Treasury determines what quantity the Bank must issue in exchange for the Ways and Means asset the Bank will end up holding by default. That will be one-for-one, which means HM Treasury and the Bank of England can operate in the same currency with their liabilities pegged one-for-one with each other.

    The interest rate HM Treasury pays on the Ways and Means is determined by agreement between HM Treasury and the Bank. Since HM Treasury has the right to direct the Bank it can, if it wishes, direct that interest rate to be zero.

    Interest rates are just a way of expressing selling things at a discount with automatic rollover. Historically that’s what happened with a new bond issued every accounting period. Then we had bonds that rolled over with each years coupon attached – hence why interest payments on bonds are called coupons.

    In the UK HM Treasury determines the discount on Treasury liabilities. In the US the Fed determines the discount. That difference has to be addressed.

    The USA would need to change the law to achieve the one-to-one peg between Treasury and Central Bank liabilities that MMT suggests is optimal. The UK does not. We already have it and can put in place a labour buffer stock fiscal stabilisation policy to replace interest rate setting.

  2. Neil, you wrote, “I’ve seen nothing that prevents the Fed issuing, say, 83 cents on the dollar for anything Treasury issues.” I encourage you to read the applicable statutes. Under 12 USC § 391, when the Federal Reserve accepts a deposit from the Treasury, it is acting as the Treasury’s “fiscal agent”. Additionally, according to 12 USC § 246, whenever the Fed’s powers appear to conflict with the powers of the Secretary of the Treasury, those powers must be “exercised subject to the supervision and control of the Secretary.” If you have two entities, one which is a principal and the other which is an agent acting under the supervision and control of the principal, the agent does not have the discretion to overrule the principal. In other words, the Federal Reserve does not have the authority to decide that Treasury liabilities are worth less than face value.

    1. “Under 12 USC § 391, when the Federal Reserve accepts a deposit from the Treasury, it is acting as the Treasury’s “fiscal agent”.”

      It’s not accepting a deposit. It’s accepting a coin. A coin isn’t a deposit. It’s a receipt for a deposit.

      This comes back to why coins and notes are worth anything at all. It is nothing to do with the declared value of them. It’s to do with what Federal Reserve balances they attract from whoever the coin or note is issued by.

      Dollar bills are only worth a dollar to a bank because they will get a transfer from the TGA to their reserve account at the Fed of one federal reserve dollar. That’s the deposit. The coin or note is just a token for that deposit. If the TGA has nothing in it *and the law prevents the Fed running an overdraft* then the dollar bill is essentially worthless at that point – people will stop accepting it.

      Same with a coin.

      It seems to me that the power of seigniorage is neutralised by the overdraft prohibition.

      If the federal law you quote allows a coin to be forcibly deposited at the Fed, then the same law can surely be used to get the Fed to run the TGA in overdraft. That would then be the same situation we have in the UK under the 1866 Act where the Bank is agent for HM Treasury.

      1. I misspoke, the statute does not say “accept a deposit”. Here’s the actual text, if you like. “The moneys held in the general fund of the Treasury…may, upon the direction of the Secretary of the Treasury, be deposited in Federal reserve banks, which banks, when required by the Secretary of the Treasury, shall act as fiscal agents of the United States.”

        My misstatement notwithstanding, there’s nothing in the statute that gives the Fed any discretion to decide how much to credit the TGA when the Treasury deposits coins.

        You wrote: “Dollar bills are only worth a dollar to a bank because they will get a transfer from the TGA to their reserve account at the Fed of one federal reserve dollar. That’s the deposit. The coin or note is just a token for that deposit. If the TGA has nothing in it *and the law prevents the Fed running an overdraft* then the dollar bill is essentially worthless at that point – people will stop accepting it.”

        This is not how the TGA or reserve accounts at the Fed work. First, when a bank gives a dollar bill to the Fed, the Fed credits it with a $1 reserve balance simply by altering the composition of the Fed’s balance sheet, not by transferring reserves from the TGA. The Fed decreases notes outstanding by $1 and increases reserves outstanding by $1. It can do this because both reserve balances and federal reserve notes are direct liabilities of the Fed. In the Fed’s own words, when a bank needs federal reserve notes, “it pays for the currency with a debit to its Federal Reserve account. Thus, an increase in Federal Reserve notes outside of the Reserve Banks reduces the quantity of reserve balances that depository institutions hold in their Federal Reserve accounts but leaves total liabilities of the Federal Reserve unchanged, all else being equal.” (https://www.federalreserve.gov/monetarypolicy/bst_frliabilities.htm) The TGA is not involved; banks do not purchase reserves from the Treasury.

        Second, a dollar bill can be used to discharge a tax liability even if the TGA is empty. If a bank attempted to pay a $1 tax with a $1 bill, they would give it to the Fed, who would credit their reserve account with $1, then they would ask the Fed to process the payment to the Treasury, and the Fed would decrease the bank’s reserve account by $1 and credit the TGA with $1.

        You also wrote: “It seems to me that the power of seigniorage is neutralised by the overdraft prohibition.”

        It’s not clear to me what you’re trying to say, but you seem to be denying the legal authority for the Treasury to generate seigniorage revenue . Here is how seigniorage revenue is defined by the US Treasury Financial Manual, which is one of the regulations which binds the US Fiscal Service (https://www.fiscal.treasury.gov/files/ussgl/tfm-archive/effective-october2013/part-1/sec2_acctdef_2013.pdf):

        “The amount of increase in the net position of the U.S. Federal Government for the *face value* of newly minted coins less the cost of production, which includes the cost of metal, manufacturing, and transportation. Seigniorage results from the sovereign power of the U.S.
        Federal Government to directly create money and, although it is not an inflow of resources from the public, it does increase the U.S. Federal Government’s net position in the same manner as an inflow of resources. It is not demanded, earned, or donated; therefore, it is recognized as a financing source rather than revenue. An example is coins delivered to a Federal Reserve Bank in return for deposits. This account is used only by the United States Mint.” (emphasis added)

        As described by Rohan Grey in “Administering Money,” “the Treasury Secretary has the authority under 31 U.S.C. § 5136 to direct the Mint to ‘sweep’ its surplus profits into the Treasury General Account at any time, where they are recorded as miscellaneous receipts.”

        The regulations and statutes are very clear. The Mint records receipts equal to the face value of coins minus their cost of production and gives them to the Treasury Secretary, who deposits them in in the TGA in exchange for reserve balances.

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